Template:Severability boilerplate capsule: Difference between revisions

From The Jolly Contrarian
Jump to navigation Jump to search
No edit summary
No edit summary
Line 3: Line 3:
Everyone happy, right? Now what should happen if, unexpectedly, it becomes illegal to supply doctored bowls of M&Ms (look, let’s just say OK?)? Without a functioning severability clause, the contract might be void. ''I might never get my money back''.
Everyone happy, right? Now what should happen if, unexpectedly, it becomes illegal to supply doctored bowls of M&Ms (look, let’s just say OK?)? Without a functioning severability clause, the contract might be void. ''I might never get my money back''.


''Really?'' This reasoning seems to depend on a rather rigid application of a latin maxim (''ex turpi causa non oritur actio) whereas the common law, if it ever thought that, doesn’t any more (see {{casenote|Patel|Mirza}}).
''Really?'' This reasoning seems to depend on a rather rigid application of a latin maxim (''ex turpi causa non oritur actio''”) whereas the common law, if it ever thought that, doesn’t any more (see {{casenote|Patel|Mirza}}).

Revision as of 11:57, 15 June 2021

The JC has a hard time understanding the logic of severability boilerplate, but it seems to be this: Let’s say I agree to lend you one hundred million dollars for a year. The terms of are loan are that you must repay in a year, together with fixed interest in the mean time and on the scheduled repayment date I must deliver you a single bowl of M&Ms with the brown ones removed.

Everyone happy, right? Now what should happen if, unexpectedly, it becomes illegal to supply doctored bowls of M&Ms (look, let’s just say OK?)? Without a functioning severability clause, the contract might be void. I might never get my money back.

Really? This reasoning seems to depend on a rather rigid application of a latin maxim (“ex turpi causa non oritur actio”) whereas the common law, if it ever thought that, doesn’t any more (see Patel v Mirza).