Absent a written agreement between the parties that expressly imposes affirmative obligations to the contrary for that transaction: Difference between revisions

Absent a written agreement between the parties that expressly imposes affirmative obligations to the contrary for that transaction (view source)

4 bytes removed , 13 November 2018

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 This lumpen phrase has found its way into the derivatives canon.
-Google “[[absent a written agreement between the parties that expressly imposes affirmative obligations to the contrary for that transaction]]”, in quotes <ref>{{google1|"absent+a+written+agreement+between+the+parties+that+expressly+imposes+affirmative+obligations+to+the+contrary+for+that+transaction"}}</ref>, if you don't believe me. There are 2000 hits for this exact phrase. By contrast "Last night, I shot an elephant in my pyjamas. How he got in my pyjamas, I'll never know"<ref>{{google1|"Last+night,+I+shot+an+elephant+in+my+pyjamas.+How+he+got+in+my+pyjamas,+I'll+never+know"}}</ref> garners only 4,000 hits.
+Google “[[absent a written agreement between the parties that expressly imposes affirmative obligations to the contrary for that transaction]]”, in quotes <ref>{{google1|absent+a+written+agreement+between+the+parties+that+expressly+imposes+affirmative+obligations+to+the+contrary+for+that+transaction}}</ref>, if you don't believe me. There are 2000 hits for this exact phrase. By contrast "Last night, I shot an elephant in my pyjamas. How he got in my pyjamas, I'll never know"<ref>{{google1|Last+night,+I+shot+an+elephant+in+my+pyjamas.+How+he+got+in+my+pyjamas,+I'll+never+know}}</ref> garners only 4,000 hits.
 HOW CAN THIS PHRASE BE HALF AS POPULAR AS ONE OF GROUCHO MARX'S GREATEST LINES?