Loaned Securities - 2000 GMSLA Provision: Difference between revisions

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For example: Paragraph {{gmsla2000prov|6.1}} says, of manufactured income:
For example: Paragraph {{gmsla2000prov|6.1}} says, of manufactured income:
:''Where {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is paid ''in relation to any {{gmsla2000prov|Loaned Securities}}''  [...] on or by reference to an {{gmsla2000prov|Income Payment Date}} ...''
:“Where {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is paid ''in relation to any {{gmsla2000prov|Loaned Securities}}''  [...] on or by reference to an {{gmsla2000prov|Income Payment Date}} ...


Say I hold {{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} on their {{gmsla2000prov|Income Payment Date}} (NB: this is {{2000gmsla}} speak for the {{gmslaprov|Income Record Date}}<ref>That this is sloppily expressed is another whole conversation — in any case it was (partially) fixed in the 2010 {{gmsla}}.</ref>), being the date by reference to which the Income was payable, but I redeliver them before the date on which relevant {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is actually paid, then must I manufacture the dividend?
Say I hold {{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} on their {{gmsla2000prov|Income Payment Date}} (NB: this is {{2000gmsla}} speak for the {{gmslaprov|Income Record Date}}<ref>That this is sloppily expressed is another whole conversation — in any case it was (partially) fixed in the 2010 {{gmsla}}.</ref>), being the date ''by reference to which'' the {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} was payable, but then I artfully redeliver {{gmsla2000prov|Equivalent Securities}} back to you ''before the date on which the relevant {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is actually paid'', then must I manufacture the dividend?


A common sense economic analysis would say yes: the {{gmsla2000prov|Lender}} was not the holder of record on the record date, by reason of the {{gmsla2000prov|Borrower}} having borrowed the shares. So the {{gmsla2000prov|Borrower}} should manufacture the payment. But when the {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is paid, the {{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} are not  “{{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} which are” — present tense — “the subject of an outstanding {{gmsla2000prov|Loan}}.”
A common sense economic analysis would say yes: the {{gmsla2000prov|Lender}} was not the holder of record on the record date, by reason of the {{gmsla2000prov|Borrower}} having borrowed the shares. So the {{gmsla2000prov|Borrower}} should manufacture the payment.  


Also, this is an easy end-run for a nefarious Borrower: once an Income record date passes, as long as it can deliver the shares back to the Lender before the actual payment date, on a literal reading of this clause it can avoid ever having to manufacture a dividend.
Also, any other view would be an easy end-run for a nefarious {{gmsla2000prov|Borrower}}: once the Income record date passes, it could redeliver the shares back to the Lender before the payment date, and avoid ever having to manufacture a dividend. that can’t be the intention, right?
 
Well, on a literal reading, maybe: when the {{gmsla2000prov|Income}} is ''paid'', the {{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} are not  “{{gmsla2000prov|Securities}} which are ...” — present tense — “... the subject of an outstanding {{gmsla2000prov|Loan}}.”


The 2010 {{gmsla}} deals with this by using the same expression, {{gmslaprov|Loaned Securities}}<ref>Defined exactly the same way as Loaned Securities in the {{2000gmsla}}</ref> in a subtly different way in Paragraph {{gmslaprov|6.1}}:
The 2010 {{gmsla}} deals with this by using the same expression, {{gmslaprov|Loaned Securities}}<ref>Defined exactly the same way as Loaned Securities in the {{2000gmsla}}</ref> in a subtly different way in Paragraph {{gmslaprov|6.1}}:

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