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During a [[The bilaterality, or not, of the ISDA|typically turgid disquisition]] about the ostensible “bilaterality” of the {{isdama}}, the JC remarked rashly that despite ''looking like'' a bilateral, even-stevens, un-[[loansome]] sort of a thing, in practical fact most swaps are ''implied financing arrangements''.
{{drop|[[a swap as a loan|W]]|hile composing}} his [[The bilaterality, or not, of the ISDA|turgid disquisition]] on the “bilaterality” of the {{isdama}}, JC remarked that, despite ''looking like'' bilateral, even-stevens, un-[[loansome]] things swaps are, in fact, ''implied loans''. Hotly justifying this stance side-tracked the original article, so JC  “[[Let’s take it offline|took things offline]]” and started a whole new article on the topic. Here it is.
 
Hotly justifying this stance sidetracked the original article, so we have “[[Let’s take it offline|taken things offline]]” and started a whole new article where the JC can properly make a tit of himself without spoiling the a perfectly pointless ululation about [[The bilaterality, or not, of the ISDA|Party A and Party B]].


To recap the background to that post:
To recap the background to that post:


{{Quote|Whereas most finance contracts imply dominance and subservience between lenders who extract excruciating covenants and enjoy a preferred place in the borrower’s affections, on its Christmas card list and so on, swaps are unique in ''not being like that''.
{{Quote|{{drop|W|hereas most}} finance contracts imply dominance and subservience — the classic loan has a ''lender'' who extracts excruciating covenants, takes mortgages, sharpens knives and so on, and a ''borrower'' whose mortal soul is traduced, suffers repeated indignities but who must yet feign affection through gritted teeth and deep resentment — swaps are ''not like that''.
   
   
“A swap contract is an exchange among peers. It is an equal-opportunity, biblically righteous compact between equals. There is no lender or borrower: each participant is an honest rival for the favour of the Lady Fortune, however capricious may she be.”}}
Swaps, so conventional wisdom would have it, are exchanges ''among peers''. “It is,” cognoscenti are given to say, “an equal-opportunity, biblically righteous compact ''between equals''. There is no lender or borrower to a swap: yes, the transaction may go in and out of the money but, as it does, each participant is an honest rival for the favour of the Lady Fortune, however capricious may she be.”}}
 
''Fiddlesticks''. At least outside the inter-dealer community, and even then, frequently within it, this conventional wisdom is not true.
 
In the bigger picture, ''swaps are loans''.
 
An “end user” swap ''is'', in fact, a “synthetic” loan from [[dealer]] to [[customer]]. To the extent regulations require dealers to ''post'' [[variation margin]] outright against their own swap exposures (rather than simply calling for it from their customers), the regulations make the financial system ''less'' stable, ''more'' risky, ''more'' leveraged, and ''more'' prone to the market calamities that fueled the global financial crisis. Bilateral variation margin is a category error.
 
''Swap dealers should not collateralise their customers.''
 
There. I said it.


So here goes: the JC’s position is that outside the inter-dealer community, this conventional wisdom is not meaningfully true. An “end user” swap ''is'', in fact, a synthetic loan from dealer to customer.
JC is blessed in having charitable friends who forgive intellectual softness.  


Industry veterans may look upon you slack-jawed if you say this. Being optimistic, they try to give you the benefit of the doubt for this flight of fancy.
“Oh, well,” they are prone to say when the old boy goes off on one, “I suppose you ''could'' analyse an [[Interest rate swap mis-selling scandal|interest rate swap]] as a pair of off-setting loans. Yes, that seems strictly true. But, dear fellow, is it not rather to miss the point? Seeing each party lends to the other, and as notional principal flows in both directions at the same time, the loan, as you put it, cancels out. The parties to a swap are not ''really'' lending to each other, old thing.


“Oh, well, I suppose you could analyse an [[Interest rate swap mis-selling scandal|interest rate swap]] as a pair of off-setting fixed-rate and floating-rate loans. Yes, that seems strictly true. But it is rather to miss the point. Seeing as the same amount of principal in the same currency flows in both directions at the same time, the principal flows cancel each other out — they ‘net’ to zero. So, loans, sure. But two, going in opposite directions. This implies, does it not, that the parties are ''not'' lending to each other? The loans cancel out.”
====Customers and dealers====
====Customers and dealers====
But this is not what the JC means.  
{{drop|B|ut this is}} not what the JC means. When a dealer provides a swap to a customer, economically, the dealer lends, outright, to the customer. One way. The customer doesn’t get the money, but that doesn’t matter. The money goes on financing the hedge.


Now, far out in space, beyond the Oort cloud of the cramped star system of inter-dealer relationships, there is a boundless universe of end user swaps. Here, one party is a “dealer” and the other — the end user — a “customer”. This is the great majority of all swap arrangements.  
Now there is a boundless universe of “end user” swaps. Here, one party is a “dealer” and the other — the “end user” is a “customer”. These are the great majority of all swap arrangements in the known universe. Hence, the expressions “[[sell side|sell-side]]” — the dealers — and “[[buy side|buy-side]]” — their customers.  


The difference between ''customer'' and ''dealer'' is not who is “long” and who “short” — one of the great [[Swappist Oath|swappist]] beauties is that customers can easily go long ''or'' short — nor on who pays “fixed” and who “floating”.   
The difference between ''customer'' and ''dealer'' on a swap is not who is “long” and who “short” the swap exposure — one of the great [[Swappist Oath|swappist]] beauties of the ISDA framework is that customers can go long ''or'' short, as they please — nor on who pays “fixed” and who “floating”.   


The difference between customer and borrower is ''who is borrowing''.   
The difference between customer and borrower is ''who is lending and who is borrowing''.   
====The capital cost of changing your position====
{{drop|F|or a customer}}, the object of any {{isdaprov|Transaction}} is to ''change its overall market exposure'': to get into a position it did not have before, or get out of one it did.


For a ''customer'' the object of any transaction is to ''change its overall market exposure'': to leg into positions it did not have before, or leg out of ones it did. This sounds obvious enough. But dealers do ''not''. They say flat.  
But dealers do ''not'' do this. Dealers stay ''flat''.  


Hang on, though, JC: you yourself say a swap is a bilateral contract. How can that be so? Does it not follow that if the ''customer'' changes its position, the dealer must be doing so too?  
“Hang on, though, JC: if a swap is bilateral, how ''can'' that be so? Does it not follow that if the ''customer'' changes its position one way, the dealer must do so the other way?


Well, ''no''.  
In the narrow confines of a specific {{isdaprov|Transaction}} perhaps. But the narrow Transaction is not the whole picture. In the wider context of the parties overall net risk positions, this does not happen. Customers change their positions


The dealer ''provides'' exposure without taking any itself. It thereby earns a commission. This is all the excitement the dealer wants. The dealer stays ''flat'' the customer’s market risk. It hedges that market risk away. Without no market risk, the dealer is left with only customer ''credit'' exposure. ''As it would have'' ''in a loan''. (Spoiler: the similarities don’t end there.)
The dealer “provides” exposure by sourcing it in the market, delta-hedging it, and charging its customer a [[commission]]. There are all kinds of enterprising and funding-efficient ways it can do so, but fundamentally, a dealer stays market-neutral. The customer’s credit risk for the life of the trade, is all the excitement the dealer wants. As long as its market side hedges work, the only market risk the dealer takes comes about if the customer fails. That is to say, the dealer has customer ''credit'' exposure for as long as the customer stays in its risk position. The customer decides when to exit: as long as it is not solvent the dealer is committed to staying in. If the customer wants to exit, the dealer will make a price.  


Ok: but how does that fleeting resemblance turn a bilateral swap into a “synthetic loan” from the dealer to the customer?
Now: the thing about being net long, or net short, a financial exposure is that someone needs to acquire that exposure. Even if the exposure is an “unfunded” rate, or index, in the real world that rate only comes from making a capital investment in an underlying product. Someone has to ''commit capital'' to generate that return.


Imagine the JC’s in-house [[hedge fund]], [[Hackthorn Capital Partners]] holds USD10m of that redoubtable stalwart of legal [[Thought leader|thought-leader]]<nowiki/>ship [[Lexrifyly]], and wants to get exposure to the fabulous new [[Legaltech startup conference|legaltech start-up]], [[Cryptöagle]].
This is the same capital expenditure that a bank must make when extending a loan. The difference is only that the bank commits that capital to its hedging programme, rather than giving it directly to the customer (as it would in a [[Margin loan|margin loan]]).


It can do one of three things:  
====Worked example====
Imagine [[Hackthorn Capital Partners]] already holds USD10m of that redoubtable stalwart of legal [[Thought leader|thought-leader]]ship [[Lexrifyly]], and, it wants to acquire some long exposure to the JC’s fabulous new [[Legaltech startup conference|legaltech start-up]], [[Cryptöagle]].
 
Hackthorn can do one of three things:  


{{Quote|{{divhelvetica|
{{Quote|{{divhelvetica|
(i) ''sell'' [[Lexrifyly]] and ''buy'' [[Cryptöagle]] — this is an outright long investment;
(i) ''sell'' [[Lexrifyly]] and ''buy'' [[Cryptöagle]] — that is, make an outright long investment out of the proceeds of sale;


(ii) ''hold'' [[Lexrifyly]] and ''borrow'' to buy [[Cryptöagle]] — this is a financed investment;
(ii) ''hold'' [[Lexrifyly]] and ''borrow'' to buy [[Cryptöagle]] — that is, take a [[margin loan]];


(iii) ''hold'' Lexrifyly and ''get exposure to'' [[Cryptöagle]] via a swap — conventionally, not a financed investment. (''But...'')}}}}
(iii) ''hold'' [[Lexrifyly]] and ''get synthetic exposure to'' [[Cryptöagle]] via an [[equity swap]] from its dealer, without, apparently borrowing any money.}}}}


For ease of argument, let’s say on the investment date, both [[Cryptöagle]] and [[Lexrifyly]] trade at USD1 per share, so both positions are for 10m shares. Here are the positions:
To make it easy, let’s say on the investment date, both [[Cryptöagle]] and [[Lexrifyly]] trade at USD1 per share, so both positions are for 10m shares.  
 
Here are the positions:


{{Quote|{{divhelvetica|
{{Quote|{{divhelvetica|
'''Outright sale'''<br>
'''Sale'''<br>
If it sells its [[Lexrifyly]] outright, the position is as follows:
If it sells [[Lexrifyly]] outright, the position is as follows:
:''Sold: USD10m [[Lexrifyly]].
:''Sold: USD10m [[Lexrifyly]].
:''Borrowed'': Zero.
:''Borrowed'': Zero.
Line 54: Line 68:
:''Bought'': 10m [[Cryptöagle]].
:''Bought'': 10m [[Cryptöagle]].
:''Net position'': ''10m [[Cryptöagle]] shares + zero [[Lexrifyly]] + zero loan''
:''Net position'': ''10m [[Cryptöagle]] shares + zero [[Lexrifyly]] + zero loan''


'''Loan'''<br>
'''Loan'''<br>
If it keeps its [[Lexrifyly]] and borrows, the position is as follows:
If it keeps [[Lexrifyly]] and borrows to buy [[Cryptöagle]], the position is as follows:
:''Sold: Zero.
:''Sold: Zero.
:''Borrowed: USD10m.
:''Borrowed: USD10m.
Line 64: Line 77:


'''Swap'''<br>
'''Swap'''<br>
If it keeps its [[Lexrifyly]] and puts on a swap struck at USD10m, the position is as follows:
If it keeps [[Lexrifyly]] and buys an equity swap from its dealer struck at USD10m, the position is as follows:
:''Sold: Zero.
:''Sold: Zero.
:''Borrowed: Zero.
:''Borrowed: Zero.
:''Swap outgoings'': Floating rate on USD10m
:''Swap outgoings'': Floating rate on USD10m
:''Swap incomings'': USD10m [[Cryptöagle]] - USD10m.
:''Swap incomings'': USD10m [[Cryptöagle]] - USD10m (being the strike price).
:''Net position'':  ''10m [[Lexrifyly]] shares + 10m [[Cryptöagle]] shares - USD10m - accrued interest''
:''Net position'':  ''10m [[Lexrifyly]] shares + 10m [[Cryptöagle]] shares - USD10m - accrued interest''
}}}}
}}}}


Notice how similar the loan and the swap are. Even though there is no physical loan, the investor’s payment profile is the same. It pays a floating rate, and has the USD10m notional value of the loan deducted from its pay-out. And like a loan, the [[equity swap]] gives Hackthorn exposure to [[Cryptöagle]] whilst keeping its exposure to [[Lexrifyly]], which Hackthorn uses to fund cashflows on its new capital asset. This is a form of ''[[leverage]]''. The floating rate Hackthorn pays is ''implied funding''. The dealer will only accept this if it is satisfied Hackthorn has enough capital to finance its swap payments and settle any differences at termination. This is the same risk calculation a bank lender would make.<ref>To keep it simple, I have ignored the scope for synthetic margin loan and rehypothecation.</ref> 
Notice that the economics of the loan are identical to those of the swap. Even though there is no physical loan, the investor’s payment profile is the same. It pays a floating rate, and has the USD10m notional value of the loan deducted from its pay-out. And like a loan, the [[equity swap]] gives Hackthorn exposure to [[Cryptöagle]] whilst keeping its exposure to [[Lexrifyly]], which Hackthorn uses to fund cashflows on its new capital asset.  


But, hang on: this is a bilateral arrangement, right, so isn’t the converse true of the dealer? Isn’t the dealer, in a sense, “borrowing” by paying the total return of the asset to get “exposure” to the floating rate in the same way? Indeed, is not a “short” swap position, for a dealer, exactly the same as a “long” swap position for a customer?
This is a form of ''[[leverage]]''. ''As it would have'' ''in a loan.''


No, because in providing these swap exposures to its customers, the dealer simultaneously [[Delta-hedging|delta-hedges]]. It does not changing its own market position. The customer ''buys'' an exposure: that is, starts ''without'' and ends up ''with'' a “position”; the dealer manufactures and then ''sells'' an exposure: it starts ''without'' a position, takes an order, creates a position, transfers it to the customer and ends up where it started, ''without'' a position.   
The [[floating rate]] Hackthorn pays is ''implied funding''. The dealer will only accept this if it is satisfied Hackthorn has enough capital to finance its swap payments and settle any differences at termination. This is the same risk calculation a bank would make on a loan.<ref>To keep it simple, I have ignored the scope for synthetic margin loan and rehypothecation.</ref>  


Hence, the expressions “[[sell side|sell-side]]” — the dealers — and “[[buy side|buy-side]]” — their customers.
But, hang on: this is a bilateral arrangement, right, so isn’t the converse also true, of the dealer? Isn’t the dealer, in a sense, “borrowing” by paying the total return of the asset to get “exposure” to the floating rate in the same way? Is not a “short” swap position, for a dealer, exactly the same as a “long” swap position for a customer?


Provided the [[dealer]] knows what it is about, its main risk in running a swap portfolio is not therefore market risk — it should not have any — but ''customer credit'' ''risk''. Should a customer fail, the dealer’s book is no longer matched: its delta-hedge is now an outright long or short position.    
No, because in providing these swap exposures to its customers, the dealer simultaneously [[Delta-hedging|delta-hedges]]. It does not change its own market position. The customer ''buys'' an exposure: that is, starts ''without'' and ends up ''with'' a “position”; the dealer manufactures and then ''sells'' an exposure: it starts ''without'' a position, takes an order, creates a position, transfers it to the customer and ends up where it started, ''without'' a position. 
 
Provided the [[dealer]] knows what it is about, its main risk in running a swap portfolio is not, therefore, market risk — it should not have any — but ''customer credit'' ''risk''. Should a customer fail, the dealer’s book is no longer matched: its delta-hedge is now an outright long or short position.  


==== Fixed/floating swaps ====
==== Fixed/floating swaps ====
Line 86: Line 101:
:—{{buchstein}}, {{dsh}}
:—{{buchstein}}, {{dsh}}
}}
}}
Ok; that’s a delta-one equity swap. But is this kind of [[synthetic equity swap|synthetic prime brokerage]] just an odd use case? Aren’t “normal” swaps truly bilateral and less “lendy” in nature? How about interest rate swaps? Surely ''paying'' a fixed rate while ''receiving'' a floating rate has none of these same characteristics of borrowership and loanery about it?
{{smallcaps|Ok; that’s a}} [[delta-one]] equity swap. But [[synthetic equity swap|synthetic prime brokerage]] is, surely, an unusual use case?   
====Income implies principal====
The first point to make here is that in the real universe of actual, non-synthetic investments, fixed or floating rate cashflows ''do not exist independently of a principal investment''. This is because they are necessarily ''income'' on a capital investment. When you put it like that, it is kind of obvious this must be true.  


Oh, sure, you could sell a strip of [[coupon]]<nowiki/>s off a [[Debt security|bond]]. Okay. But to do that, there must first ''be'' a bond, and you have to buy it, cut it up and sell the stripped bond back into the market. Once you’ve done that, you have your disembodied interest cashflow all right, but you also have unleashed this weird, mutilated, principal-only instrument that flaps around the market at a heavy discount to a fully-limbed equivalent, sort of like Weird Barbie or one of those intercised kids with no daemon in ''His Dark Materials''.
Aren’t “''normal''” swaps truly bilateral? How about a good old fashioned [[interest rate swap]]? Surely ''paying'' a [[fixed rate]], and ''receiving'' a [[floating rate]], has none of these same characteristics of borrowership about it?


Repeat: in the real world, ''income cashflows only exist with an income-generating asset''. Stands to reason. A rate with out principal is like a shadow without a boy.  
The first thing to say here is that in the real universe of actual, non-[[derivative]] instruments, interest rate cashflows ''do not exist independently of an investment in principal''.<ref>This is just as true of [[dividend]]<nowiki/>s on equities, of course.</ref> This is because an interest rate is, by definition, the ''income'' on a capital investment.
====Derivatives as engines of hypothesis====
Did swaps change all that?


It was only once the [[Children of the Woods|Children of the Forest]] wrought their wristy magic on the [[First Men]] in the dark thickets of [[Bretton Woods|Woods of Bretton]] that the ways of the [[Single agreement|Single Agreement]] came into common understanding. Only then were leaden, earth-bound notions of principal swept away; the swap market took wing upon the nuclear power of infinite leverage. Income flows could bust free of their leaden principal host and frolic in ISDA’s glittering starlight.
Oh, sure, you can detach and sell a strip of [[coupon]]<nowiki/>s off a [[Debt security|bond]]: okay. But to do that, there must first ''be'' a bond, and you must buy it, cut it up and sell the stripped bond principal back into the market. Once you’ve done that, you have your disembodied interest cashflow, all right — but someone else has its dark inversion: this weird, mutilated, principal-only, [[Zero-coupon bond|zero-coupon]] instrument that trades at a heavy discount to its fully-limbed equivalent. It will exist, but unhappily: like Weird Barbie or one of those intercised children with no daemon in ''His Dark Materials''. Once you have sold the principal you might not be able to ''see'' it any more, ''but it is still there''.


In this ''synthetic'' world we have the mathematical tools to ''hypothetically'' isolate income from the assets which generate it, and trade the income streams as discrete instruments, but at some point, they must intersect with real-world instruments, ''because that is what they are derived from''. For a customer to take on a derivative position, someone else, somewhere in the linear chain of financial instruments hedging that exposure must, at some point, buy a real-world hedge. Including its principal. ''And that must be financed''.  
{{Quote|{{drop|“I|n the real world}} interest rates do not exist independently of principal investments. This is because an interest rate is, by definition, the income on a capital investment.”}}


If you want a [[floating rate]] on a notional of a hundred bucks, you pony up a hundred bucks and buy a floating-rate note. That means selling down an asset you already have. If you don’t want to do that, you can borrow the hundred bucks at a fixed rate from the dealer who is selling you the floating rate note, and bingo the principal on the note and your loan cancel out and you have an interest rate swap.  
Repeat: in the real world, ''interest rate cashflows depend on income-generating assets''. It stands to reason. A rate without principal is like a shadow without a boy.
 
Do swaps change all that?
 
No: because at some point, swaps must be ''based in the reality from which they are derived''. This is not bitcoin, folks.
====Derivatives as “engines of hypothesis”====
{{quote|
{{D|Derivative|/dɪˈrɪvətɪv/|n}}
FINANCE: (of a product) having a value ''deriving from'' an underlying variable asset. (''emphasis added'')}}
 
{{Drop|W|hen the [[Children of the Forest|Children]]}} [[Children of the Woods|of the Forest]] wrought their wristy magic on the [[First Men]] and the [[Single agreement|Way of the One Agreement]] passed into common understanding our leaden, earth-bound notions of “necessary principal” were swept away. Only then did the swap market take wing, upon the nuclear power of [[leverage]]. Income could flow, at last, unshackled of its leaden ''principal'' host, and was free to nudely frolic in ISDA’s glittering starlight.
 
The “synthetic” world is an alternative, magical realm. Normal rules of [[space-time]] do not apply. There are amulets, magic instruments and imaginary tools with which even ordinary mortals can do impossible things. As we have seen, we can isolate income from [[principal]] and trade them hypothetically, as discrete instruments.
 
But gravity is not banished; only ''postponed''. At some point, this fantasia must alight on planet Earth and engage with real-world instruments, ''because that is what it is all derived from''. Ultimately, somewhere, someone needs to construct each enchanting payoff from grubby, weighty, principal-laden corporate rights and obligations. Those rights and obligations are — on our mortal coil, must be — embedded in a scaly crust of principal.
 
And ''that principal'' ''must be financed''.
 
So if you want to earn [[floating rate]] on a notional of a hundred bucks in the real world, you pony up a hundred bucks. That means selling an investment you already own:<ref>Even free cash deposited with the bank is an investment: it is a loan to the bank.</ref> going off some other risk. If you don’t want to sell down another investment, you must ''borrow'' from someone.
 
If that someone is the [[dealer]] from whom you bought the [[floating rate note]], consider the final cashflows: you ''pay'' a fixed rate  on your loan; you finance that from the income generated by your asset portfolio, the principal on the note you’ve bought cancels out against the principal of your loan and bingo: ''you have an interest rate swap''.


Interest rate swaps are, in this sense, “synthetic fixed income prime brokerage”.
====Leverage is a state of mind (or balance-sheet)====
====Leverage is a state of mind (or balance-sheet)====
{{smallcaps|One last way}} to look at this: an interest rate swap is a levered investment in a debt instrument. Interest rate swaps are, in this sense, “synthetic ''fixed income'' prime brokerage”: a [[margin loan]] to buy a fixed income asset.


One last way to look at this: an [[interest rate swap]] is a levered investment in a fixed income asset. A margin loan to buy a fixed income asset is, literally, a levered investment in that fixed income asset. The difference is the customer is taking a margin loan, the dealer is not.
We can see this by considering the parties’ respective economic positions before and after trading. The customer changes its net position; the [[dealer]] does not. Swapping a fixed cashflow for a floating one is to ''keep'' the “asset” funding that fixed cashflow, and to borrow the funds required to buy the new floating-rate asset. Because that borrowing has the same principal amount as the purchased floating-rate asset, the principal amounts cancel out, and the customer left with just the floating rate cashflow, for which it must pay the fixed rate cashflow it has agreed.  
 
We can see this by considering the parties’ respective economic positions before and after trading. The customer changes its net position; the [[dealer]] does not. Swapping a fixed cashflow for a floating one is to ''keep'' the “asset” funding that fixed cashflow, and to borrow the funds required to acquire a new floating-rate asset in the same principal amount. Because that borrowing has the same principal amount as the floating-rate asset, the principal amounts cancel out, and the customer left with just the floating rate cashflow, for which it must pay the fixed rate it has agreed.  


Without that implied loan, the customer would have to sell an asset to raise the proceeds to buy the floating-rate bond from the dealer. That is, pay the principal amount to the dealer, and acquire the interest and principal cashflows of a floating rate asset. Here the customer is not borrowing anything.
Without that implied loan, the customer would have to sell an asset to raise the proceeds to buy the floating-rate bond outright from the dealer. That is, pay the principal amount to the dealer, and acquire the interest ''and'' principal cashflows of a floating rate asset. Here the customer is certainly not borrowing anything. It is making a fully-funded long investment.


“But, but, but JC: can’t you see? If you pay someone 100 and they pay you the return of an instrument worth 100 and interest, ''you'' have loaned ''them'' the money?”
“But, but, but JC: can’t you see? If you pay someone 100 and they pay you the return of an instrument worth 100 and interest, ''you'' have loaned ''them'' the money?”


Quite so: but that is the nature of a floating-rate bond. It ''is'' a loan. But it is ''not a loan to the dealer''. It is a loan ''to the issuer of the floating-rate bond''. If the dealer is paying you the return of a floating-rate bond you may be assured it has used your money to buy a floating-rate bond, to hedge itself. You have not, net, lent the dealer ''anything''.
Quite so: but ''that is the nature of a floating-rate bond''. It ''is'' a loan. But it is ''not a loan to the dealer''. It is a loan ''to the issuer of the floating-rate bond''. If the dealer is paying you the return of a floating-rate bond you may be assured it has used your money to buy the floating-rate bond, to hedge itself.  It is flat. You have not, net, lent the dealer ''anything''.

Latest revision as of 12:29, 15 April 2024

While composing his turgid disquisition on the “bilaterality” of the ISDA Master Agreement, JC remarked that, despite looking like bilateral, even-stevens, un-loansome things swaps are, in fact, implied loans. Hotly justifying this stance side-tracked the original article, so JC “took things offline” and started a whole new article on the topic. Here it is.

To recap the background to that post:

Whereas most finance contracts imply dominance and subservience — the classic loan has a lender who extracts excruciating covenants, takes mortgages, sharpens knives and so on, and a borrower whose mortal soul is traduced, suffers repeated indignities but who must yet feign affection through gritted teeth and deep resentment — swaps are not like that.

Swaps, so conventional wisdom would have it, are exchanges among peers. “It is,” cognoscenti are given to say, “an equal-opportunity, biblically righteous compact between equals. There is no lender or borrower to a swap: yes, the transaction may go in and out of the money but, as it does, each participant is an honest rival for the favour of the Lady Fortune, however capricious may she be.”

Fiddlesticks. At least outside the inter-dealer community, and even then, frequently within it, this conventional wisdom is not true.

In the bigger picture, swaps are loans.

An “end user” swap is, in fact, a “synthetic” loan from dealer to customer. To the extent regulations require dealers to post variation margin outright against their own swap exposures (rather than simply calling for it from their customers), the regulations make the financial system less stable, more risky, more leveraged, and more prone to the market calamities that fueled the global financial crisis. Bilateral variation margin is a category error.

Swap dealers should not collateralise their customers.

There. I said it.

JC is blessed in having charitable friends who forgive intellectual softness.

“Oh, well,” they are prone to say when the old boy goes off on one, “I suppose you could analyse an interest rate swap as a pair of off-setting loans. Yes, that seems strictly true. But, dear fellow, is it not rather to miss the point? Seeing each party lends to the other, and as notional principal flows in both directions at the same time, the loan, as you put it, cancels out. The parties to a swap are not really lending to each other, old thing.”

Customers and dealers

But this is not what the JC means. When a dealer provides a swap to a customer, economically, the dealer lends, outright, to the customer. One way. The customer doesn’t get the money, but that doesn’t matter. The money goes on financing the hedge.

Now there is a boundless universe of “end user” swaps. Here, one party is a “dealer” and the other — the “end user” — is a “customer”. These are the great majority of all swap arrangements in the known universe. Hence, the expressions “sell-side” — the dealers — and “buy-side” — their customers.

The difference between customer and dealer on a swap is not who is “long” and who “short” the swap exposure — one of the great swappist beauties of the ISDA framework is that customers can go long or short, as they please — nor on who pays “fixed” and who “floating”.

The difference between customer and borrower is who is lending and who is borrowing.

The capital cost of changing your position

For a customer, the object of any Transaction is to change its overall market exposure: to get into a position it did not have before, or get out of one it did.

But dealers do not do this. Dealers stay flat.

“Hang on, though, JC: if a swap is bilateral, how can that be so? Does it not follow that if the customer changes its position one way, the dealer must do so the other way?”

In the narrow confines of a specific Transaction perhaps. But the narrow Transaction is not the whole picture. In the wider context of the parties overall net risk positions, this does not happen. Customers change their positions

The dealer “provides” exposure by sourcing it in the market, delta-hedging it, and charging its customer a commission. There are all kinds of enterprising and funding-efficient ways it can do so, but fundamentally, a dealer stays market-neutral. The customer’s credit risk for the life of the trade, is all the excitement the dealer wants. As long as its market side hedges work, the only market risk the dealer takes comes about if the customer fails. That is to say, the dealer has customer credit exposure for as long as the customer stays in its risk position. The customer decides when to exit: as long as it is not solvent the dealer is committed to staying in. If the customer wants to exit, the dealer will make a price.

Now: the thing about being net long, or net short, a financial exposure is that someone needs to acquire that exposure. Even if the exposure is an “unfunded” rate, or index, in the real world that rate only comes from making a capital investment in an underlying product. Someone has to commit capital to generate that return.

This is the same capital expenditure that a bank must make when extending a loan. The difference is only that the bank commits that capital to its hedging programme, rather than giving it directly to the customer (as it would in a margin loan).

Worked example

Imagine Hackthorn Capital Partners already holds USD10m of that redoubtable stalwart of legal thought-leadership Lexrifyly, and, it wants to acquire some long exposure to the JC’s fabulous new legaltech start-up, Cryptöagle.

Hackthorn can do one of three things:

(i) sell Lexrifyly and buy Cryptöagle — that is, make an outright long investment out of the proceeds of sale;

(ii) hold Lexrifyly and borrow to buy Cryptöagle — that is, take a margin loan;

(iii) hold Lexrifyly and get synthetic exposure to Cryptöagle via an equity swap from its dealer, without, apparently borrowing any money.

To make it easy, let’s say on the investment date, both Cryptöagle and Lexrifyly trade at USD1 per share, so both positions are for 10m shares.

Here are the positions:

Sale
If it sells Lexrifyly outright, the position is as follows:

Sold: USD10m Lexrifyly.
Borrowed: Zero.
Amount owed: Zero.
Bought: 10m Cryptöagle.
Net position: 10m Cryptöagle shares + zero Lexrifyly + zero loan

Loan
If it keeps Lexrifyly and borrows to buy Cryptöagle, the position is as follows:

Sold: Zero.
Borrowed: USD10m.
Bought: USD10m Cryptöagle.
Net position: 10m Lexrifyly shares + 10m Cryptöagle shares - USD10m - accrued interest

Swap
If it keeps Lexrifyly and buys an equity swap from its dealer struck at USD10m, the position is as follows:

Sold: Zero.
Borrowed: Zero.
Swap outgoings: Floating rate on USD10m
Swap incomings: USD10m Cryptöagle - USD10m (being the strike price).
Net position: 10m Lexrifyly shares + 10m Cryptöagle shares - USD10m - accrued interest

Notice that the economics of the loan are identical to those of the swap. Even though there is no physical loan, the investor’s payment profile is the same. It pays a floating rate, and has the USD10m notional value of the loan deducted from its pay-out. And like a loan, the equity swap gives Hackthorn exposure to Cryptöagle whilst keeping its exposure to Lexrifyly, which Hackthorn uses to fund cashflows on its new capital asset.

This is a form of leverage. As it would have in a loan.

The floating rate Hackthorn pays is implied funding. The dealer will only accept this if it is satisfied Hackthorn has enough capital to finance its swap payments and settle any differences at termination. This is the same risk calculation a bank would make on a loan.[1]

But, hang on: this is a bilateral arrangement, right, so isn’t the converse also true, of the dealer? Isn’t the dealer, in a sense, “borrowing” by paying the total return of the asset to get “exposure” to the floating rate in the same way? Is not a “short” swap position, for a dealer, exactly the same as a “long” swap position for a customer?

No, because in providing these swap exposures to its customers, the dealer simultaneously delta-hedges. It does not change its own market position. The customer buys an exposure: that is, starts without and ends up with a “position”; the dealer manufactures and then sells an exposure: it starts without a position, takes an order, creates a position, transfers it to the customer and ends up where it started, without a position.

Provided the dealer knows what it is about, its main risk in running a swap portfolio is not, therefore, market risk — it should not have any — but customer credit risk. Should a customer fail, the dealer’s book is no longer matched: its delta-hedge is now an outright long or short position.

Fixed/floating swaps

Nuncle: ’Tis none so mincey as a Farrington chop
And nowt so loansome as a fixed rate swap.[2]

Büchstein, Die Schweizer Heulsuse

Ok; that’s a delta-one equity swap. But synthetic prime brokerage is, surely, an unusual use case?

Aren’t “normal” swaps truly bilateral? How about a good old fashioned interest rate swap? Surely paying a fixed rate, and receiving a floating rate, has none of these same characteristics of borrowership about it?

The first thing to say here is that in the real universe of actual, non-derivative instruments, interest rate cashflows do not exist independently of an investment in principal.[3] This is because an interest rate is, by definition, the income on a capital investment.

Oh, sure, you can detach and sell a strip of coupons off a bond: okay. But to do that, there must first be a bond, and you must buy it, cut it up and sell the stripped bond principal back into the market. Once you’ve done that, you have your disembodied interest cashflow, all right — but someone else has its dark inversion: this weird, mutilated, principal-only, zero-coupon instrument that trades at a heavy discount to its fully-limbed equivalent. It will exist, but unhappily: like Weird Barbie or one of those intercised children with no daemon in His Dark Materials. Once you have sold the principal you might not be able to see it any more, but it is still there.

“In the real world interest rates do not exist independently of principal investments. This is because an interest rate is, by definition, the income on a capital investment.”

Repeat: in the real world, interest rate cashflows depend on income-generating assets. It stands to reason. A rate without principal is like a shadow without a boy.

Do swaps change all that?

No: because at some point, swaps must be based in the reality from which they are derived. This is not bitcoin, folks.

Derivatives as “engines of hypothesis”

Derivative
/dɪˈrɪvətɪv/ (n.)
FINANCE: (of a product) having a value deriving from an underlying variable asset. (emphasis added)

When the Children of the Forest wrought their wristy magic on the First Men and the Way of the One Agreement passed into common understanding our leaden, earth-bound notions of “necessary principal” were swept away. Only then did the swap market take wing, upon the nuclear power of leverage. Income could flow, at last, unshackled of its leaden principal host, and was free to nudely frolic in ISDA’s glittering starlight.

The “synthetic” world is an alternative, magical realm. Normal rules of space-time do not apply. There are amulets, magic instruments and imaginary tools with which even ordinary mortals can do impossible things. As we have seen, we can isolate income from principal and trade them hypothetically, as discrete instruments.

But gravity is not banished; only postponed. At some point, this fantasia must alight on planet Earth and engage with real-world instruments, because that is what it is all derived from. Ultimately, somewhere, someone needs to construct each enchanting payoff from grubby, weighty, principal-laden corporate rights and obligations. Those rights and obligations are — on our mortal coil, must be — embedded in a scaly crust of principal.

And that principal must be financed.

So if you want to earn floating rate on a notional of a hundred bucks in the real world, you pony up a hundred bucks. That means selling an investment you already own:[4] going off some other risk. If you don’t want to sell down another investment, you must borrow from someone.

If that someone is the dealer from whom you bought the floating rate note, consider the final cashflows: you pay a fixed rate on your loan; you finance that from the income generated by your asset portfolio, the principal on the note you’ve bought cancels out against the principal of your loan and bingo: you have an interest rate swap.

Leverage is a state of mind (or balance-sheet)

One last way to look at this: an interest rate swap is a levered investment in a debt instrument. Interest rate swaps are, in this sense, “synthetic fixed income prime brokerage”: a margin loan to buy a fixed income asset.

We can see this by considering the parties’ respective economic positions before and after trading. The customer changes its net position; the dealer does not. Swapping a fixed cashflow for a floating one is to keep the “asset” funding that fixed cashflow, and to borrow the funds required to buy the new floating-rate asset. Because that borrowing has the same principal amount as the purchased floating-rate asset, the principal amounts cancel out, and the customer left with just the floating rate cashflow, for which it must pay the fixed rate cashflow it has agreed.

Without that implied loan, the customer would have to sell an asset to raise the proceeds to buy the floating-rate bond outright from the dealer. That is, pay the principal amount to the dealer, and acquire the interest and principal cashflows of a floating rate asset. Here the customer is certainly not borrowing anything. It is making a fully-funded long investment.

“But, but, but JC: can’t you see? If you pay someone 100 and they pay you the return of an instrument worth 100 and interest, you have loaned them the money?”

Quite so: but that is the nature of a floating-rate bond. It is a loan. But it is not a loan to the dealer. It is a loan to the issuer of the floating-rate bond. If the dealer is paying you the return of a floating-rate bond you may be assured it has used your money to buy the floating-rate bond, to hedge itself. It is flat. You have not, net, lent the dealer anything.

  1. To keep it simple, I have ignored the scope for synthetic margin loan and rehypothecation.
  2. Are you loansome tonight?
  3. This is just as true of dividends on equities, of course.
  4. Even free cash deposited with the bank is an investment: it is a loan to the bank.